• SailorFuzz@lemmy.worldBanned from community
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      2 days ago

      you’re just be pedantic. The issue isn’t about it being “mostly”, it’s about if its a “men’s” thing. A 42/58 isn’t that wide of a gap to say that it’s one gender’s thing. As the difference could likely just be attributed to other cultural factors and not the thing itself.

      If office workers were split 42/58, you wouldn’t call it a “man’s” job, even if technically there’s more men.

      • grue@lemmy.world
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        2 days ago

        Nevertheless, if you want to say it’s not “mostly,” your example ought to do better than 42%!

      • grue@lemmy.world
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        2 days ago

        Yes, anything over half is literally what “mostly” means. Doesn’t matter if it’s 99% or 51%.

            • wieson@feddit.org
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              2 days ago

              If your friend group is 6 men and 4 women, do you tell people “I’m mostly friends with men”?

              • saltesc@lemmy.world
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                2 days ago

                “It’s been a big effort by the team these past three years, but we’re mostly done now.”

                sighs of relief across the research grant board

                “Boom! Right on time!”

        • AlexLost@lemmy.world
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          2 days ago

          That word is covering a lot of ground. Why would you let language be so ambiguous to you? What would you call 75%, and then how can you destinguish between the two if they are both “mostly”?